More and more I’m convinced that Vedic culture declined due to political failure in around 700 - 800 CE. Baudh (बौद्ध) and Jain political power was there, beginning 400BC, hence that did not cause the loss of Vedic tradition or discourse. It lost threshold power in 1150-1200 (1192 - 98 being critical) but the process was irreversible from 700CE.
My assertions - This political failure happened due to blatant injustices caused by “Jati”, not really casteism or Varna system - which is basically misunderstood meaning of “Jati” system. It doesn’t really matter, all are bad.
However, now, there is significant power and money in asserting that Indian people have no achievements of their own. The idea is to change the very core of “Indianness” definition, somehow by proving the following 2 contradictory things simultaneously.
Around 2000 BC there was a massive invasion. Vedic tradition is external to India. This basically brought in so-called “Brahiminism” which although not really defined well can be used to whip up emotions. The core injustice is that the current external minority has ruled a native majority for 4000 years. it should be thrown out.
Everything else, every great achievement of Indian philosophers, is not by Indians (somehow the same minority is not that great) , by proving every progress in thoughts happened in only the last few centuries in west, when India was subjugated.
The 2nd one is just plain wrong, while the 1st one is way difficult to prove or disprove. Even if that is considered true, it is 4000 years of continuous history. All the source populations of steppe or wherever else, have not preserved that culture and most of the growth in philosophy, science, mathematics happened in these 4000 years. Buddhism, Jainism and many other sects flourished in the last 4000 years. These did not come from outside. For the last 1000 years, this so-called “minority” has definitely not ruled and special culprits "Brahmins" were not rulers ever. So what exactly are they being accusing of? Why is this culture not the core of "Indianess" anyway ? The core of “Britishness” or “Russianess” or "Egyptianess" or "Chineseness" is not 4000 years old.
Ohh..and .. by chance if the tradition of “Dharma” is established before 4000 BC, it can be concluded that culture continued and absorbed new entrants like it always does. What would then be done to make the Indian population think less of themselves? Berate that culture with superiority of the exclusive cultures. The external entrants that were not absorbed. Abrahamic cultures. Which generally believe in exclusion and not inclusion. They know God very well and there is no need to search for truth anymore. Vedic culture above all is a quest for truth. Everything else can be changed.
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